Although I respect the expertise of Wadhams, a puzzling thing was the insistence that the downward trend since the measurements is necessarily “abnormal” and caused by our emissions. I have no problem accepting that he saw drastic changes in the Arctic concerning the height / volume of the polar cap during his long career and that this was the reason why he thought that the Arctic would be ice free soon.
For the record, I have no problem whatsoever believing that the Arctic underwent changes in the last 40-50 years. But logically, we only start measuring the ice of the poles since the end of the 1970s. If we only started to measure AFTER the supposed cause started, then logically what is the “normal” extent and volume of the Arctic?